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Which Of The Following Is Identified As A Metric Type By Continual Service Improvement?

ITIL V3 Foundation Exam

Posted on September 23, 2009. Filed under: ITIL Exams | Tags: ITIL Certification, ITIL Foundation Exam, ITIL V3 Foundation Exam |

ITIL V3 Foundation Test Sample Q & A

ITIL V3 Sample Newspaper one

1. Which of the following is Non a stride in the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) model?

a) What is the vision?

b) Did we get at that place?

c) Is there upkeep?

d) Where are nosotros now?

Ans

2. What is the RACI model used for?

a) Documenting the roles and relationships of stakeholders in a process or activeness

b) Defining requirements for a new service or process

c) Analyzing the business concern bear upon of an incident

d) Creating a balanced scorecard showing the overall status of Service Management

Ans

3. What is the main reason for establishing a baseline?

a) To standardize operation

b) For knowing the cost of services provided

c) For roles and responsibleness to be articulate

d) For afterwards comparison

Ans

iv. Which of the post-obit is NOT an objective of Service Performance?

a) Through testing, to ensure that services are designed to see business organization needs

b) To deliver and back up IT services

c) To manage the technology used to deliver services

d) To monitor the performance of technology and processes

Ans

v. Which of the following statements is CORRECT well-nigh patterns of demand generated past the client's business?

a) They are driven by patterns of business activity

b) It is impossible to predict how they deport

c) It is incommunicable to influence demand patterns

d) They are driven by the delivery schedule generated by capacity management

Ans

6. Which of the post-obit is Not 1 of the ITIL core publications?

a) Service Optimization

b) Service Transition

c) Service Design

d) Service Strategy

Ans

7. Which of the following statements is Right?

ane. But one person can be responsible for an activity

two. But one person can exist accountable for an activity

a) All of the above

b) 1 simply

c) 2 just

d) None of the above

Ans

eight. Which is the correct sequence of events in the selection of a technology tool?

a) Select Product, Requirements, Selection Criteria, Evaluate Production

b) Pick Criteria, Requirements, Evaluate Product, Select Product

c) Requirements, Selection Criteria, Select Product, Evaluate Production

d) Requirements, Selection Criteria, Evaluate Production, Select Production

Ans

9. Which of the following are the 3 main types of metrics as divers in Continual Service Improvement (CSI)?

i. Procedure Metrics

2. Supplier Metrics

three. Service Metrics

4. Technology Metrics

5. Business organisation Metrics

a) one, 2 and 3

b) 2, 4 and 5

c) ane, three and four

d) ane, two and 4

Ans

x. The priority of an Incident refers to?

a) The relative importance of the Incident based on impact and urgency

b) The speed with which the Incident needs to exist resolved

c) The number of staff that will exist assigned to work on the Incident and so that it is resolved in time

d) The escalation path that will be followed to ensure resolution of the incident

Ans

11. The goal of Service Asset and Configuration Management is to?

a) Business relationship for all fiscal assets of the organization

b) Provide a logical model of the Information technology infrastructure, correlating It services and different IT components needed to deliver the services

c) Build service models to justify the ITIL implementations

d) Implement ITIL across the organisation

Ans

12. Which are the missing Service Operation processes from the following?

1. Incident Direction

2. Trouble Management

iii. Access Management

four. ?

5. ?

a) Event direction and Request Fulfillment

b) Event Direction and Service Desk-bound

c) Facilities Management and Event Management

d) Alter Direction and Service Level Management

Ans

13. Which of the following identifies 2 Service Portfolio components within the Service Lifecycle?

a) Requirements Portfolio and Service Catalogue

b) Service Knowledge Direction System and Service Catalogue

c) Service Knowledge Direction System and Requirements Portfolio

d) Requirements Portfolio and Configuration Direction System

Ans

xiv. Which of the post-obit areas would technology help to support during the Service Blueprint phase of the Lifecycle?

i. Hardware and Software design

2. Ecology design

three. Procedure blueprint

4. Data design

a) ane, 3 and four simply

b) 1, 2 and iii only

c) All of the higher up

d) 2, iii and four merely

Ans

fifteen. Concern drivers and requirements for a new service should be considered during?

a) Review of the router operating organisation patches

b) Review of the electric current capabilities of IT service delivery

c) The Mail service Implementation Review (PIR) of a change

d) Decommissioning legacy servers

Ans

sixteen. The Best definition of an event is?

a) An occurrence where a performance threshold has been exceeded and an agreed Service Level has already been impacted

b) An occurrence that is pregnant for the management of the Information technology infrastructure or delivery of services

c) A known system defect that generates multiple incident reports

d) A planned meeting of customers and IT staff to announce a new service or improvement plan

Ans

17. What does the Service V model represent?

a) A strategy for the successful completion of all Service Direction projects

b) The path to Service Delivery and Service Support for efficient and effective utilization of resources

c) Levels of Configuration and testing required to deliver a Service Adequacy

d) The business perspective equally perceived by the customer and the user of services

Ans

18. Technical Management is Not responsible for?

a) Maintenance of the technical infrastructure

b) Documenting and maintaining the technical skills required to manage and support the IT infrastructure

c) Defining the Operational Level Agreements for the technical teams

d) Diagnosis of, and recovery from, technical failures

Ans

nineteen. The post-obit options are considered inside which process?

1. Large bang vs. Phased

2. Push and Pull

3. Automated vs. Manual

a) Incident Direction

b) Release and Deployment Management

c) Service Asset and Configuration Management

d) Service Catalogue Management

Ans

20. Which of the post-obit activities is Service Level Management responsible for?

a) Design the configuration direction system from a business organization perspective

b) Create technology metrics to marshal with customer needs

c) Create a client facing service catalogue

d) Train service desk on how to deal with customer complaints about service

Ans

21. When analyzing an issue for creation of value for customers, what attributes of the service should be considered?

a) Objectives, Metric, Desired outcome

b) Concern Objectives, Information technology objectives, Procedure metrics

c) Desired outcome, Supplier metrics, It objectives

d) People, Products, Applied science

Ans

22. Setting policies and objectives is the chief business concern of which of the following elements of the Service Lifecycle?

a) Service Strategy

b) Service Strategy and Continual Service Comeback

c) Service Strategy, Service Transition and Service Operation

d) Service Strategy, Service Design, Service Transition, Service Functioning and Continual Service Comeback

Ans

23. Which of the post-obit Best describes the purpose of Outcome Management?

a) The ability to notice events, make sense of them and make up one's mind the advisable command action

b) The ability to implement monitoring tools

c) The ability to monitor and control the activities of technical staff

d) The ability to report on the successful delivery of services by checking the uptime of infrastructure devices

Ans

24. Consider the following statements:

1. CSI provides guidance on how to improve process efficiency and effectiveness

ii. CSI provides guidance on how to improve services

three. CSI provides guidance on the improvement of all phases of the service lifecycle

4. CSI provides guidance on the measurement of processes and services

Which of the higher up statements is Correct?

a) i and ii but

b) ii just

c) ane, 2 and 3 only

d) All of the to a higher place

Ans

25. Which of the following statements are Correct about Functions?

1. They provide structure and stability to organizations

two. They are self-contained units with their ain capabilities and resource

3. They rely on processes for cantankerous-functional coordination and control

4. They are costlier to implement compared to processes

a) one, 2 and iii only

b) one, 2 and 4 only

c) All of the above

d) None of the to a higher place

Ans

26. If an organization is able to become more proactive in its ITSM processes, what is probable to happen to support costs?

a) They are probable to increase gradually

b) They are likely to increment dramatically

c) They are probable to gradually reduce

d) They are likely to reduce initially and so gradually render to current level

Ans

27. Which of the following statements about Supplier Management is Incorrect?

a) Supplier Management negotiates internal and external agreements to support the delivery of services

b) Supplier Direction ensures that suppliers meet concern expectations

c) Supplier Management maintains information in a Supplier and Contracts Database

d) Supplier Management should be involved in all stages of the service lifecycle, from Strategy through Design and Transition to Operations and Improvement

Ans

28. Which of the following Best describes a Local Service Desk structure?

a) A Service Desk that also provides onsite technical back up to its users

b) A Service Desk-bound where analysts only speak ane language

c) A Service Desk that is situated in the same location equally the users information technology serves

d) A Service Desk that could be in any concrete location but uses telecommunications and IT systems to make it announced that they are in the same location

Ans

29. What is the office of the Emergency Alter Informational Board (ECAB)?

a) To help the Change Manager in ensuring that no urgent changes are fabricated during particularly volatile business periods

b) To assist the Alter Manager in implementing emergency changes

c) To assist the Change Director in evaluating emergency changes and to determine whether the change should exist approved

d) To aid the Modify Manager in speeding up the emergency change procedure and then that no unacceptable delays occur.

Ans

30. Which of the following is a good use of a baseline?

a) The desired cease country of a projection

b) A marker or starting point for afterwards comparison

c) The current desktop models in use

d) The blazon of testing to be done for a release

Ans

31. The master objective of Availability Direction is?

a) To monitor and written report availability of services and components

b) To ensure that all targets in Service Level Agreements (SLAs) are met

c) To guarantee availability levels for services and components

d) To ensure that service availability matches or exceeds the agreed needs of the business

Ans

32. Operations Command refers to?

a) The managers of the Technical and Applications Management functions

b) Overseeing the execution and monitoring of IT operational events and activities

c) The tools used to monitor and display the status of the IT Infrastructure and Applications

d) The state of affairs where the Service Desk is required to monitor the status of the infrastructure when Operators are non available

Ans

33. Which off the following is a characteristic of every procedure?

1. It is measurable

2. It is timely

3. It delivers a specific result

iv. Information technology responds to a specific outcome

5. It delivers its primary result to a customer or stakeholder

a) 1, two, three and iv simply

b) 1, two, four and 5 only

c) 1, 3, iv and 5 simply

d) All of the above

Ans

34. Which of the following is NOT an example of a Service Request?

a) A user calls the Service Desk to social club a toner cartridge

b) A user calls the Service Desk-bound because they would like to modify the functionality of an application

c) A Director submits a request for a new employee to exist given access to an application

d) A user logs onto an internal website to download a licensed copy of software from a list of approved options

Ans

35. A Service Level Package is best described every bit?

a) A definite level of utility and warranty associated with a core service package

b) A description of customer requirements used to negotiate a Service Level Agreement

c) A description of the value that the customer wants and for which they are willing to pay

d) A document showing the Service Levels achieved during an agreed reporting period

Ans

36. Incident Management has a value to the business past?

a) Helping to command infrastructure price of calculation new engineering

b) Enabling users to resolve Bug

c) Helping to marshal people and process for the delivery of service

d) Contributing to the reduction of impact

Ans

37. A Service owner is responsible for which of the following?

a) Recommending improvements

b) Designing and documenting a Service

c) Carrying out the Service Operations activities needed to support a Service

d) Producing a balanced scorecard showing the overall condition of all Services

Ans

38. The four stages of the Deming Bike are?

a) Plan, Measure, Monitor, Study

b) Plan, Check, Re-Human action, Implement

c) Plan, Exercise, Act, Audit

d) Plan, Do, Check, Act

Ans

39. What is the Right order of the first four activities in the seven Stride Improvement Process?

a) Define what you should measure out, define what you lot can measure out, gather data and procedure data

b) Gather data, process information, analyze information and present data

c) What is the vision, where are nosotros now, what practice we want to be, how do we get at that place?

d) Gather information, procedure data, define what you should measure and define what y'all tin can measure

Ans

40. Which of the following statements is Right for all processes?

a) They ascertain activities, roles, responsibilities, functions and metrics

b) They create value for stakeholders

c) They are carried out by a Service Provider in back up of a Customer

d) They are units of organizations responsible for specific outcomes

Ans

Answers to Sample paper 1:

01. c. 02. a. 03. d 04. a. 05. a. 06. a. 07. c. 08. d. 09. c. 10. a.

11. b. 12. a. xiii. a. 14. c. 15. b. 16. b. 17. b. 18. c. 19. b. xx. c.

21. b. 22. a. 23. a. 24. d. 25. a. 26. c. 27. a. 28. c. 29. c. 30. b

31. d. 32. b. 33. c. 34. b. 35. a. 36. d. 37. a. 38. d. 39. a. 40. b.

Exam Questions Paper ii

ane. The ITIL V3 core is best described as?

a) An Operations Lifecycle

b) An IT Direction Lifecycle

c) A Service Lifecycle

d) An Infrastructure Lifecycle

Ans

2. Which attribute of Service Design is missing from the listing below?

one. The design of services

ii. The pattern of Service Direction systems and tools

three. The design of technology architecture and management systems

iv. The blueprint of the processes required

five. ?

a) The pattern of Functions

b) The design of Service Level Agreements

c) The blueprint of applications

d) The design of measurement systems, methods and metrics

Ans

iii. Which of the following Roles is responsible for identifying opportunities for improvement?

1. Service Possessor

2. Continual Service Improvement (CSI) Manager

three. Process Owner

a) 1 and 2 simply

b) 1 and 3 but

c) All of the to a higher place

d) 2 and 3 merely

Ans

iv. Learning and comeback is the primary concern of which of the following elements of the Service Lifecycle?

a) Service Strategy, Service Design, Service Transition, Service Operation and Continual Service Improvement

b) Service Strategy, Service Transition and Service Functioning

c) Service Performance and Continual Service Improvement

d) Continual Service Improvement

Ans

5. Which of the following is the most appropriate approach to carrying out Service Operations?

a) The internal It view is most important every bit Service Operations has to monitor and manage the infrastructure

b) Service Operations should maintain a balance between an internal It view and an external business view

c) The external concern view is near important as Service Operations is the place where value is realized and the customer obtains the benefit of the services

d) It Operations does not accept an internal or external view every bit they execute processes defined past Service Design

Ans

6. Which of the post-obit statements nigh the Service Desk are Right?

i. The Service Desk is a function that provides a means of communication between Information technology and its users for all operational problems

ii. The Service Desk is ever the owner of the Incident Management process

a) 2 only

b) 1 only

c) All of the to a higher place

d) None of the in a higher place

Ans

seven. How does an arrangement employ Resource and Capabilities in creating value?

a) They are used to create value in the form of output for production management

b) They are used to create value in the form of goods and services

c) They are used to create value to the IT organisation for Service Support

d) They are used to create value to the IT organization for Service Delivery

Ans

8. In which core publication tin y'all observe detailed descriptions of the post-obit?

1. Service Portfolio Management

2. Need Direction

three. Financial Management

a) Service Operations

b) Service Strategy

c) Service Transition

d) Continual Service Comeback

Ans

nine. Which of the following statements BEST describes the part of Communication during Service Operation?

a) Communication is defined as part of all processes and is executed in Service Functioning

b) Communication is a separate process that needs to exist defined and executed with Service Operation

c) Good communication is essential for successful Service Functioning, just as it is for any other phase of the Lifecycle

d) Communication is more of import in Service Operation than in whatsoever other phase of the Service Lifecycle

Ans

ten. A Procedure owner is responsible for which of the following?

a) Purchasing tools to support the Process

b) Ensuring that targets specified in an SLA are met

c) Carrying out activities divers in the Process

d) Monitoring and improving the Process

Ans

11. Demand Management is primarily used to?

a) Increment customer value

b) Eliminate backlog capacity needs

c) Increase the value of Information technology

d) Align business with IT cost

Ans

12. Which of the post-obit is NOT an reward of organizing Continual Service Improvement (CSI) using the RACI model?

a) Facilitates articulate communication and workflow do across all parties involved in the CSI program

b) Clarifies the roles and responsibilities of individual in the CSI program which could otherwise be overlapping and confusing

c) Identifies where internal Service Level Agreements (SLAs) tin can be established to implement CSI

d) Provides a clear focus for matching the CSI processes to financial planning

Ans

thirteen. Which of the following are objectives of the Release and Deployment Management process?

i. To ensure in that location are clear release and deployment plans

two. To ensure that skills and knowledge are transferred to operations and support staff

three. To ensure at that place is minimal unpredicted affect on production services

4. To provide cost justifiable IT capacity that is matched to the needs of the concern

a) 1, ii and iii just

b) All of the above

c) 1 and three only

d) 1, 3 and 4 merely

Ans

fourteen. Which of the following questions is Non answered by Service Portfolio Management?

a) How should our resources and capabilities be allocated?

b) What opportunities are in that location in the market place?

c) Why should a customer purchase these services?

d) What are the pricing or chargeback models?

Ans

15. Which of the following statements are Non included in Access Management?

1. Verifying the identity of users requesting access to services

2. Setting the rights or privileges of systems to permit access to authorized users

three. Defining security policies for system access

4. Monitoring the availability of systems that users should have access to

a) 3 and 4 only

b) 1 and three merely

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1 and 2 only

Ans

sixteen. Awarding Management is Not responsible for?

a) Documenting and maintaining the technical skills required to manage and back up Applications

b) Managing applications through their lifecycle

c) Profitable in the determination to build or buy new software

d) Developing operational functionality required by the business

Ans

17. If something cannot be measured, it should not be documented within which of the following?

a) The Glossary of Terms

b) A Service Level Understanding

c) An Incident Management record

d) A Configuration Item (CI)

Ans

18. What is the purpose of the Request Fulfillment Procedure?

a) Dealing with Service Requests from the users

b) Making certain all requests inside an IT Organisation is fulfilled

c) Ensuring fulfillment of Change Requests

d) Making sure the Service Level Agreement is met

Ans

xix. Which of the following areas would technology help to support during the Service Transition phase of the lifecycle?

1. Data mining and workflow tools

2. Measurement and reporting systems

3. Release and Deployment technology

4. Process Blueprint

a) one, 2 and 3 but

b) 1, iii and 4 only

c) 2, three and 4 but

d) All of the to a higher place

Ans

xx. Which of the post-obit statements is CORRECT well-nigh 'good practice'?

a) It tin can be used to drive an organization forwards

b) It is something that is in wide industry utilize

c) It is e'er documented in international standards

d) It is always based on ITIL

Ans

21. Consider the following statements:

i. A Process should be traceable to a specific trigger

two. A characteristic of the "Process" is that it is performance driven and able to exist measured

Which of the above statements are CORRECT?

a) one only

b) All of the above

c) None of the higher up

d) 2 only

Ans

22. "Warranty of a service" means which of the following?

a) The service is fit for purpose

b) In that location will be no failures in applications and infrastructure associated with the service

c) All service-related problems are stock-still free of accuse for a sure flow of time

d) Customers are assured of certain levels of availability, capacity, continuity and security

Ans

23. The objective of Service Asset and Configuration Management is virtually accurately described equally?

a) To understand the performance characteristics of assets and Configuration Items (CIs) in guild to maximize their contribution to service levels

b) To manage service assets and CIs from an operational perspective

c) To ensure that assets and CIs evangelize the business outcomes they were designed to reach

d) To define and control the components of services and infrastructure and maintain accurate configuration records

Ans

24. A Service Catalogue should incorporate which of the post-obit?

a) The version information of all software

b) The organizational structure of the company

c) Asset data

d) Details of all operational services

Ans

25. Facilities Management refers to?

a) The Direction of IT services that are viewed as "utilities", such equally printers or network admission

b) The Management of an outsourcing contract

c) The Management of the physical Information technology environment, such as a DataCenter

d) The procurement and maintenance of tools that are used by It operations staff to maintain the infrastructure

Ans

26. When planning and implementing a Continual Service Improvement (CSI) initiative, which of the following benefits is LEAST useful in supporting a business case?

a) Reduce technology investment by $5m due to more accurate chapters and operation modeling processes

b) Reduce support manpower demand by 30% due to automatic incident and trouble management processes

c) Improve employee morale and therefore create better relationships betwixt Information technology and business organization units

d) Reduce Trouble resolution past 50% and minimize disquisitional organisation outages

Ans

27. Which of the following would NOT be stored in the Definitive Media Library (DML)?

a) Main copies of software

b) Backups of application data

c) Software licenses

d) Chief copies of controlled documentation

Ans

28. The objective of the Alter Management process is almost accurately described every bit?

a) Ensuring that all changes are recorded, managed, tested and implemented in a controlled manner

b) Ensuring that changes to It infrastructure are managed efficiently and effectively

c) Ensuring that all changes have advisable dorsum-out plans in the event of failure

d) Protecting services by not assuasive changes to be made

Ans

29. Functions are best described every bit?

a) Without their own body of knowledge

b) Closed loop systems

c) Cocky-Contained units of organizations

d) Focusing on transformation to a goal

Ans

30. What is the best definition of an Incident Model?

a) The template used to define the Incident logging form used to study Incidents

b) A blazon of Incident involving a standard (or model) type of Configuration Item (CI)

c) A set of pre-defined steps to be followed when dealing with a known blazon of Incident

d) An Incident that is piece of cake to solve

Ans

31. Which of the following statements CORRECTLY defines Insourcing and Outsourcing delivery model options?

a) Insourcing relies on internal resources; outsourcing relies on external organization(southward) resources

b) Insourcing relies on external organization(s) resource; outsourcing relies on internal resources

c) Insourcing relies on co-sourcing; outsourcing relies on partnerships

d) Insourcing relies on knowledge process outsourcing; outsourcing relies on application service provisioning

Ans

32. Why should monitoring and measuring be used when trying to ameliorate services?

a) To validate, directly, justify and intervene

b) To validate, measure, monitor and change

c) To validate, programme, human activity and improve

d) To validate, assign resources, purchase technology and railroad train people

Ans

33. A benefit of using Service Design tools is?

a) To help ensure that standards and conventions are followed

b) To help ensure that events are detected as chop-chop as possible

c) To aid enable different applications to work together

d) To help implement architectures that back up the business strategy

Ans

34. Which of the following is the Right description of the Iv P'south of Service Design?

a) A four step procedure for the design of effective Service Management

b) A definition of the people and products required for successful design

c) A set of questions that should exist asked when reviewing design specifications

d) The four major areas that need to be considered in the pattern of effective Service Management

Ans

35. Consider the following statements:

one. Service Transition provides guidance on moving new and changed services into product

2. Service Transition provides guidance on testing

3. Service Transition provides guidance on the transfer of services to or from an external service provider

Which of the in a higher place statements is Right?

a) 1 and 2 merely

b) 1 just

c) All of the above

d) 1 and 3 only

Ans

36. Which is the showtime activity of the Continual Service Comeback (CSI) model?

a) Assess the current business state of affairs

b) Empathize loftier-level business requirements

c) Concur on priorities for improvement

d) Create and verify a program

Ans

37. An Incident occurs when:

1. A user is unable to admission a service during service hours

two. An authorized It staff member is unable to access a service during service hours

3. A redundant network segment fails, and the user is not aware of any disruption to service

4. A user contacts the Service Desk-bound about slow performance of an application

Which of the above statements is Right?

a) All of the above

b) 1 and 4 just

c) 2 and 3 only

d) None of the above

Ans

38. Which procedure reviews Operational Level Agreements (OLAs) on a regular basis?

a) Supplier Management

b) Service Level Direction

c) Service Portfolio Direction

d) Contract Management

Ans

39. The 7 Footstep Comeback Process can most accurately exist described equally?

a) The Seven P's of Continual Service Improvement (CSI)

b) A service improvement methodology based on the Deming Cycle

c) A set of roles and responsibilities for managing service improvements

d) A process for defining what is to be measured, gathering the data, processing the data and using it to take corrective action

Ans

40. The Information Security Policy should be bachelor to which groups of people?

a) Senior concern managers and all It staff

b) Senior business managers, IT executives and the Security Director

c) All customers, users and It staff

d) Data Security Direction staff only

Answers to ITIL V3 Sample Paper 2:

01. c. 02. d. 03. c 04. d. 05. b. 06. d. 07. b. 08. b. 09. c. 10. d.

11. b. 12. d. thirteen. a. xiv. b. 15. a. xvi. d. 17. b. xviii. a. 19. a. 20. b.

21. b. 22. d. 23. d. 24. d. 25. c. 26. c. 27. b. 28. a. 29. c. 30. c

31. a. 32. a. 33. a. 34. d. 35. c. 36. b. 37. a. 38. b. 39. d. 40. c.

ITIL Dumps Practice Paper three

1. Which of the following best means Combination of Internal & External Sourcing?

A. Internal Sourcing-.

B. External Sourcing

C. Co-Sourcing

D. Managed Services

Ans

ii. Major Incidents crave?

A. Separate procedures

B. Less urgency

C. Longer timescales

D. Less documentation

Ans

3. Which of the following CANNOT be stored and managed by a tool?

A. Knowledge

B. Information

C. Wisdom

D. Data

Ans

4. The spell bank check module of a word-processing software package contains a number of errors. The Development section has corrected these errors in a new version. Which process is responsible
for ensuring this updated version is tested?

A. Configuration Management

B. Incident Direction

C. Problem Management

D. Release Management

Ans

5. The Programme-Exercise-Cheque-Deed cycle can be used to plan and implement Service Management Processes:

How many times should each stage of the cycle be visited?

A. There should be a single Plan and Practise, and then Check and Deed should be carried out multiple times to Implement Continual Improvement

B. Each stage should be carried out in one case in the order Plan-Do-Check-Act

C. The entire bicycle should be repeated multiple times to Implement Continual Improvement

D. There should exist a single %due north. so the Practice-Check-Act wheel should be repeated multiple times to Implement Continual improvement

Ans

half dozen. Consider the post-obit statements:

1. "Processes" should exist implemented in such a way that the "Part" and "Function" in an organization are defined

2. The RACI model Is beneficial to pattern Function"

Which of the to a higher place statements are Right?

A. ane Only

B. Both of the to a higher place

C. Neither of the in a higher place

D. two just

Ans

vii. Which of the following is the process rather than a department?

A. Application Direction

B. Operations Management

C. Service Desk

D. Availability Management

Ans

8. Which of the following statements fully describes the aim of Release and Deployment Management?

A. To build, examination and deliver the capability to provide the services specified past Service Design and that volition achieve the stakeholders' requirements and deliver the Intended
objectives

B. To ensure that each release parcel specified past Service Design consists of a set of related assets and service components that are compatible with each other

C. To ensure that all release and deployment packages can be tracked, installed, tested, verified, and/or uninstalled or backed out if appropriate

D. To record and manage deviations, risks, and issues related to the new or changed service

Ans

nine. Which of the post-obit may exist defined in a process?

1. Roles

2. Activities

3. Functions

4. Guidelines

5. Standards

Ans

6. Governance Framework

A. one, 2, 3 and five only

B. All of the above

C. ane. 2, v and half dozen only

D. ane, 2, 4, and 5 only

Ans

ten. A Service Provider is?

A. An organization supplying services to one or more external customers

B. An arrangement supplying services to one or more than internal customers or external customers

C. An arrangement supplying services to one or more internal customers

D. An system supplying It services

Ans

eleven. Which ITIL process has the objective of helping to monitor the It services past maintaining a logical model of the IT infrastructure and It services?

A. Chapters Direction

B. Change Management

C. Configuration Direction

D. Financial Management for It services

Ans

12. The Design Manager Is responsible for the overall coordination and deployment of quality solution designs for services and processes. Which of the following are NOT responsibilities included
In this role?

A. Produce and maintain all necessary Service Transition Packages

B. Produce quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services, applied science compages, processes or measurement systems that meet all the agreed electric current and future IT
requirements of the arrangement

C. Take the overall Service Strategies and ensure they are reflected in the Service Design process and the service designs that are produced

D. Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of the Service Design and supporting processes

Ans

13. Of which ITIL procedure are Reliability, Serviceability and Maintainability components?

A. IT Service Continuity Management

B. Service Level Management

C. Problem Management

D. Availability Management

Ans

fourteen. Which of the following statements is truthful almost Admission Management?

A. The Process responsible for assuasive Users to brand use of IT Services, data, or other Assets.

B. Access Management helps to protect the Confidentiality, Integrity and Availability of Assets by ensuring that only authorized Users are able to access or modify the Avails.

C. Admission Direction is sometimes referred to equally Rights Direction or Identity Management.

D. All of higher up

Ans

fifteen. What aspects would you non expect to see in a Service Level report designed for the customer?

A. The boilerplate utilization level of the Service Desk

B. The level of availability realized and the fourth dimension not available per period

C. The percent of incidents that was resolved within the target

D. The successful and reverted Changes during a specific period

Ans

xvi. Availability Management is responsible for availability of?

A. Services and Resources

B. Services and Concern Processes

C. Resources and Business Processes

D. Services, Resources and Business Processes

Ans

17. What is the divergence between a procedure and a projection?

A. A process is continuous and has no end engagement, whereas a project has a finite lifespan.

B. A project is continuous and has no stop date, whereas a process has a finite lifespan.

C. A procedure stops when the objective has been achieved, whereas a project does not finish when the objective is met.

D. In a project the focus is not on the effect, whereas with a procedure the consequence is important

Ans

18. Which of the post-obit is the correct set of steps for the Continual Service improvement (CSI) Model?

A. Devise a strategy; Blueprint the solution; Transition into production; Operate the Solution; continually meliorate

B. Where practice nosotros want to be?; How do we become there?; How practise we check we arrived; How do we keep the momentum going?

C. identifies the required business outcomes; Plan how to attain the outcomes; Implement the program; Check the plan has been properly implemented; amend the solution

D. What is the vision?; Where are we at present?; Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; Did we become there?; How do we proceed the momentum going?

Ans

19. What is the meaning of the term Serviceability?

A. The degree of availability of the IT services that tin be offered

B. The degree of support that the Service Desk provides to the customer

C. The caste to which the provision of Information technology services tin be supported by maintenance contracts

D. The degree to which the services agreed in the Service Level Understanding (SLA) are complied with

Ans

20. A user reports a PC problem to the Service Desk. A Service Desk representative determines that the PC is defective and indicates that according to the services catalogue, the PC will be
replaced inside three hours. Which ITIL procedure is responsible for having this user's PC replaced inside three hours?

A. Availability Management

B. Change Management

C. Configuration Management

D. Service Level Management

Ans

21. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

A The Configuration Management System (CMS) is office of the Known Error Data Base (KEDB)

B. The Service Knowledge Direction System (SKMS) is part of the CMS

C. The KEDB and the CMS form function of the larger SKMS

D. The CMS is partof the Configuration Direction Data Base (CMDB)

Ans

22. Data is regularly exchanged between Problem Management and Change Direction. What data is this?

A. Known Errors from Problem Management, on the basis of which Change Management tin can generate Requests for Change (RFCs)

B. RFCs resulting from Known Errors

C. RFCs from the users that Problem Direction passes on to Alter Management

D. RFCs from the Service Desk that Problem Direction passes on to Modify Management

Ans

23. Which form of outsourcing provides domain based business expertise?

A. Awarding Service Provision

B. Business concern Process Outsourcing

C. Cognition Procedure Outsourcing

D. Co-Sourcing

Ans

24. Where are activities documented with the aim of improving an IT service?

A. Service Catalogue

B. Service Improvement Program

C. Service Level Agreement (SLA)

D. Service Quality Plan (SQP)

Ans

25. Changes are divided into categories.

What benchmark defines a category for a modify?

A. The consequences of the change such every bit limited, substantial, significant, etc.

B. The speed with which the change is made

C. The sequence in which the change is made

D. The Request for Modify number that the change is assigned

Ans

26. In Information technology Service Continuity Management various precautionary measures are taken, for example using an emergency power provision.

Which of the following ITIL processes could as well initiate this kind of mensurate?

A. Availability Management

B. Chapters management

C. Modify Management

D. Incident Management

Ans

27. What is a request to supervene upon something within the IT infrastructure called?

A. Replacement Request

B. Request for Change

C. Request for Release

D. Service Request

Ans

28. Which ITIL process manager requires a report specifying the duration of an interruption of a Configuration Item?

A. Availability Managing director

B. Incident Manager

C. Problem Manager

D. Service Level Director

Ans

29. Which of the following steps from the continual improvement Model is missing?

1. What Is the vision?

ii. Where are we now?

iii. Where do we want to be?

4. How do we get in that location?

5. Did we get there?

6.?

A. What is the ROI

B. How much did information technology cost.

C. How do we keep the momentum going.

D. What is the VOI?

Ans

thirty. Which of the following best describes the goal of Data Security Management Procedure?

A. To marshal IT security with business organization security and ensure that information security is finer managed in all service and Service Management activities'.

B. To ensure that that the information security risks are appropriately managed and enterprise information resources are used responsibly.

C. To provide a focus for all aspects of It security and manage all IT security activities.

D. To provide the strategic direction for security activities and ensures objectives are achieved

Ans

31. Which of the following statements about Supplier and Contract Database (SCD) are correct?

1. A database or structured Certificate used to manage Supplier Contracts throughout their Lifecycle.

ii. The SCD contains key Attributes of all Contracts with Suppliers

3. Its never part of the Service Knowledge Direction System.

4. Maintaining it is responsibleness of Supplier management procedure

A. 1 & ii but

B. 1, 2 & 3

C. 1, 2 & iv

D. All of to a higher place

Ans

32. Which of the following will complete the Four P's of Service Blueprint?

1. Perspectives

2. Positioning

3. Program

4. ???

A. People

B. Product

C. Patterns

D. Partners

Ans

33. What does Mean Time to Repair (MTTR) mean?

A. Average uptime of a service

B. Average downtime of a service

C. Average time between two sequent incidents

D. Average time of the breakdown-free period within a measured period

Ans

34. Which of the following statements is true virtually the term Event?

A. A change of state which has significance for the management of a Configuration Item or Information technology service.

B. The term Outcome is as well used to mean an Alert or notification created past any Information technology Service, configuration Item or Monitoring tool.

C. Events typically crave It Operations personnel to take actions, and ofttimes lead to Incidents being logged

D. All of above

Ans

35. Which of the following is the best description of the contents of the Definitive Media Library (DML)?

A. Copies of all software versions that are needed

B. Copies of all live software programs

C. Authorized versions of all software used on the infrastructure

D. Software awaiting user acceptance testing

Ans

36. Application Portfolio

1. A database or structured Document used to manage Applications throughout their Lifecycle.

2. The Application Portfolio contains key Attributes of all Applications.

3. The Application Portfolio is sometimes implemented every bit part of the Service Portfolio, or as office of the Configuration Management Organisation.

Which of the above statements is correct?

A. 1 merely

B. two & 3only

C. All of higher up

D. ane & 2 simply

Ans

37. Which of the following all-time describes Error Tolerance?

A. The ability of an IT Service or Configuration Item to proceed to operate correctly after Failure of a Component part.

B. The ability of a third-political party supplier to meet the terms of their contract. Often this contract will include agreed levels of availability, reliability and/or maintainability for a supporting
service or component.

C. A mensurate of how quickly and effectively a service, component or CI can be restored to normal working after a failure.

D. A measure of how long a service, component or CI can perform its agreed function without interruption

Ans

38. Which of the following questions is Non answered past Capacity Plan?

A. Capacity Forecasts

B. Recommendations

C. Components and resources forecasts

D. Countermeasures for risks

Ans

39. How can an organization determine the effectiveness of the Service Level Management process?

A. By checking contracts with suppliers

B. By measuring client satisfaction

C. Past defining service levels

D. By reporting on all incidents

Ans

xl. What is the starting time action when implementing a release?

A. Designing and edifice a release

B. Testing a release

C. Compiling the release schedule

D. Communicating and preparing the release

Ans

Answers for Sample paper three:

01. c. 02. a. 03. c 04. d. 05. b. 06. d. 07. d. 08. a. 09. d. x. b.

xi. c. 12. b. xiii. d. 14. d. 15. a. sixteen. a. 17. a. 18. d. 19. c. 20. b.

21. c. 22. b. 23. c. 24. b. 25. a. 26. a. 27. b. 28. a. 29. c. xxx.a

31. c. 32. c. 33. b. 34. d. 35. c. 36. c. 37. a. 38. d. 39. b. twoscore. c.

Make a Annotate

Where's The Annotate Form?

Which Of The Following Is Identified As A Metric Type By Continual Service Improvement?,

Source: https://itilshare.wordpress.com/2009/09/23/itil-v3-foundation-exam/

Posted by: changthatera1965.blogspot.com

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